UK Landlord Forum / Life

Hello,

I have noticed in my contract that the landlords who have wrote it have put in a clause of 2 months written notice to end our tenancy. I know this is their ideal notice period, however I have noticed later in the contract they have written the same thing but have only put '1 month' as the written notice period. From a legal perspective, is there a case to be made that requires me to only provide a one month notice period, or will the 2 months still take precedence, despite the ambiguity?

More curious than anything although later down the line this may be useful to know given I am hoping to get a house and don't want to be stuck giving notice for a long period of time if can be helped.

Many Thanks

https://england.shelter.org.uk/housing_advice/private_renting/ending_a_periodic_tenancy/how_much_notice

Maybe the 2 months you've spotted is the notice the other way?

The rule is that if there's any ambiguity it should be resolved to favour the "side" who didn't create the ambiguity. That's what a court should decide. Obviously they ideal isn't to get that far, so it's more sensible to point out the discrepancy.

It's possible that different notice periods could apply at different times of the contract.