UK Landlord Forum / Life

Hi agency has recently served this for me by 1st class post. btw they have incorrectly spelled my forename on it   - would that make a legal difference-? dont want any more hiccups than I already expect!) main question is - as the section 21 notice says they need to leave the property after the 1st day after  the 2 months notice is up  - they are so thick they may misunderstand or deliberately misunderstand this as being whenever the heck they like after this date. Would it go against me if it comes to court to text them now - as I have in the past for various things so not unusual- and say something like 'Hi you will have received the notice,  just to let you know that you are free to leave at any time before the date on the form but it needs to be that date at the latest'  perhaps ask if they need any support just to elicit a reply confirming acknowledgement of the notice being served.... as they may well ignore it' say they didnt get it and god knows how long this could drag on. there is no bond thanks to a fail by previous agent , in arrears- and the house and garden are a shit tip  . I haven't had to do this before so forgive any naivety. all advice welcome many thanks

Your understanding might be a little flawed. They don't have to leave "by that date at the latest"... all that means is that, if they're still there, then that's when you can commence the process to get a Possession Order from the Court. You can't start that before... it'd be pointless.

But... you can text them whatever clarification you want, if you reckon it'll help, or be helpful. It's not harassment to do that.