UK Landlord Forum / Life

Hello, newbie to the forum and I have one property with tenants on a rolling AST.

The tenants have been in place for just over two years and have had a perfect payment and behaviour record until March this year.

I am about to issue them with a S21/6A notice that will give them 6 months to vacate the property.

They are currently £3000 in arrears as a result of COVID19 reducing their self-employed income to a minimal level. They have continued to pay, with my agreement, between 30% and 50%of the rent but there is little prospect of full payment resuming and in six months time their outstanding debt will exceed £5,000.

I know this is a common situation for thousands of landlords and tenants across the country and before send the notice I wonder if I've missed something crucial which would mean proceeding as described would be foolish.

Many thanks in advance.

You can check your s21 notice for validity here: https://nearlylegal.co.uk/section-21-flowchart/

What do you mean by "They have continued to pay, with my agreement, between 30% and 50%of the rent"? If you agreed to a rent reduction then they don't owe you any arrears.

Quote from: DPT on September 30, 2020, 02:30:55 PM
You can check your s21 notice for validity here: https://nearlylegal.co.uk/section-21-flowchart/

What do you mean by "They have continued to pay, with my agreement, between 30% and 50%of the rent"? If you agreed to a rent reduction then they don't owe you any arrears.

Thanks for the link. V helpful.

I take your point about the arrears. The 'agreement' was perhaps more of an understanding, having had the discussion with them, that the rent was not being reduced but they would pay what they could to minimise the accumulated debt. We have this in writing.

If you're confident about the subsequent written agreement then you can serve a s8g8 with a 4 week notice period when they're at least six months in arrears, as well as a s21 with 6 months notice now.