UK Landlord Forum / Life

Hello,

I have the following problem. Last January I bought a flat that already had tenants in it. Their contract with the previous owner is due to end this July, and I am happy to extend it for another year. I prefer to draw up the new contract myself, without using any agent. However I have received a communication from the letting agent who drew up the original  contract with previous owner of the flat, saying that he had agreed to pay them to renew the contract, and this obligation now passes to me.

Is this correct? When I bought the flat, I definitely asked my solicitor whether I had any contractual relationship with the letting agent, and she said no. Certainly I never received anything stating otherwise, although I did notice that the agent was mentioned in the original rental agreement.

Any advice on this is welcome.

I'd say the agent is trying it on. He has no contractual relationship with you and the tenant is not his chattel to be bought and sold. No agreement between the former landlord and his agent can bind you contractually without your consent. If the agent feels hard done by, he can take it up with the previous landlord.

The only sticking point might be the deposit: if they agent has control of it he may try to use it as a bargaining chip.

Thanks Simon for your response.  I always assumed  the agent had no legal power to force me to use his services; thanks for confirming this.

My response would be......see you in court.

Yes, that will probably be my response.

Or provide the text your Conveyancer shared with you... which would have been in writing... to the Agent.

My solicitor never mentioned the letting agent; I only found out about them because she gave me the letting agreement between the former owner and tenants, which mentioned the agent.

Quote from: MikeyWhen I bought the flat, I definitely asked my solicitor whether I had any contractual relationship with the letting agent, and she said no.

Quote from: MikeyMy solicitor never mentioned the letting agent...

I don't quite understand... on one hand you seem to be saying you had confirmation from your legal expert that there was no contractual relationship, but then are saying it was never mentioned. I think your first answer is a better position to take. If that was only verbalised, then not so good... but it's still valid. I don't think is a major problem for you anyway.